The Only True God

John 17:3 And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.

These are Jesus’ words. He was speaking to his Father and called Him the only true God. How then can Christ be God?

Live as though Christ died yesterday, rose from the grave today, and is coming back tomorrow.

Theodore Epp

Power on Earth

In Matthew chapter 9 we see a story of a man sick of the palsy brought before Jesus. Jesus said to him, “Son, be of good cheer; thy sins be forgiven thee.” (v. 2) The scribes got upset and considered this blasphemy. (v. 3) But Jesus, knowing what they were thinking said to them, “But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power on earth to forgive sins, (then saith he to the sick of the palsy) Arise, take up thy bed, and go unto thine house.” (v. 6)

The Greek word for power, as in “power on earth” above, is expisoa. Thayer (1), and Strong (2)both say this Greek word means: power of choice, liberty of doing as one pleases; leave or permission.

It can be seen from the above definition of the Greek word expisoa, that although the word means “power of choice” there’s a strong sense of having “leave or permission”. In other words, this power of choice is delegated (3).

Delegated from whom? Leave or permission from whom? The answer can be found in verse 8, “and the multitudes having seen, wondered, and glorified God, who did give such power to men.” This power came from God!

If then, according to the doctrine of the deity of Christ, Jesus is co-equal with the Father, why did the power to forgive sins need to be delegated to him from God?

The answer can be found in verse 8. God gave “such power to men.” Jesus, although the Son of God, was a man and only a man. (See Rom 5:15, 1 Tim. 2:5,)

Reference:

(1) Joseph Henry Thayer, D.D., The New Thayer’s Greek - English
Lexicon of the New Testament (Peabody, Mass.: Hendrickson Publishers,
1981) p. 225

(2) God’s Word for Windows, Strong’s # 1849

(3) W.E. Vine, Merrill F. Unger and William White, JR., Vine’s
Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words (Atlanta: Thomas
Nelson Publishers, 1985), p. 479

The Creeds and the Deity of Christ

As alluded to in the Nicene Creed, and stated in the Athanasian Creed, “in this Trinity none is afore, or after other: none is greater, or less than another.” If then this is true, that the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit are co-equal, “none is greater, or less than another,” why does Jesus say, “the Father is greater than I?” Consider:


John 14:28 Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come [again] unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I.


If Jesus is co-equal with the Father, then why did he need to be taught by his Father? Consider:

John 8:28 Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am [he], and [that] I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.


These two passages are just the beginning of problems found in scripture with the doctrine of the Trinity and the deity of Christ as defined in the Creeds. In fact, for every so called “proof” text for the Trinity or the deity of Christ, there is a simple and reasonable way of looking at them that does not require the Trinity or the deity of Christ.

I believe in Christianity

I believe in Christianity as I believe that the sun has risen: not only because I see it, but because by it I see everything else.
C. S. Lewis

"My Father is greater than all"

John 10:29 My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand.

If the Father is "greater than all," is not the Father then greater than the Son? How then can the Son be co-equal as in the doctrine of the Trinity?

"Before Abraham was, I am."

John 8:58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.

Many try to connect the words translated from the Greek in John 8:58 as “I am” with the words translated from the Hebrew in Exodus 3:14 as “I am”. From this possible connection two conclusions can be drawn.

1. Since Christ was before Abraham, Christ must have existed prior to his birth on earth.

2. Since Christ says, “I am” he is alluding to the divine name, thereby in effect telling the Jews that he is “Very God”.

As to the first conclusion, Christ’s reference to Abraham was not to speak of his pre-existence. He was not claiming to be literally older than Abraham. This can be seen in a prior remark in verse 56, “Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw [it], and was glad.” “Abraham, to whom the Gospel was preached (Gal. 3:8), saw the day of Christ through the eye of faith. Christ was ‘foreordained before the foundation of the word, but manifested in these last times’ (1 Pet. 1:20) He was foreordained in the divine purpose, but not formed. Similarly in the divine purpose he was the ‘Lamb slain from the foundation of the world’ (Rev. 13:8) but literally he was not slain until his crucifixion in the time of Pilate.” (1) Considering the above, it becomes clear that Christ was affirming his pre-eminence not his pre-existence.

As to the second conclusion, there’s no proof that Christ was alluding to the divine name. In fact, there are some real questions as to how Exodus 3:14 should be translated. In the Tanakh, a recent translation of the Old Testament by The Jewish Publication Society, the Hebrew words “Ehyeh-Asher-Ehyeh” are not even translated into English because the meaning of the Hebrew words are uncertain. The translators say in a footnote the words are “variously translated: ‘I Am That I Am’; ‘I Am Who I Am’; ‘I Will Be What I Will Be’; ect.” (2) If we can’t be sure how the Hebrew words should be translated, how can we be sure that Christ was alluding to the divine name.

There’s another way to compare the words of Exodus 3:14 and John 8:58. The Jewish scholars who translated the Hebrew Old Testament into Greek as found in the Septuagint were fluent in both languages. It is reasonable to assume that if they produced the same Greek words in Exodus 3:14 as found in the Greek of John 8:58 then there might be a connection.

In checking the Septuagint at Exodus 3:14 it can be seen that the Hebrew words “Ehyeh-Asher-Ehyeh” are translated into the Greek words “ego eimi ho ohn”. These words translated into English mean “I am the Being”. In the Greek New Testament the words “prin abraam genesthai ego eimi” or “before Abraham was, I AM” are found in John 8:58.

From the above comparison of the Septuagint and the Greek New Testament it can be seen the words don’t quite match. “I am the Being” versus “I am”. In fact, looking a little closer, the words in John 8:58 don’t form a complete sentence. Those who would connect the words in Exodus 3:14 with the word found in John 8:58 would have Jesus responding to the Jews with an incomplete thought. There’s a predicate missing.

It would seem that however you look at it, there’s too much uncertainty about how the words should be translated in Exodus 3:14 to say they are connected with the “I Am” of John 8:58. There’s strong evidence to indicate the most accurate translation of “Ehyeh-Asher-Ehyeh” is “I will be what I will be”. This would make the connection even more unreasonable.

Something else to consider about whether Jesus was alluding to the divine name in John 8:58. “For him to do so would be inconsistent with all he said in chapter 8. ‘In John 8:16,26,28,29,38,40,42,50,54,55 Jesus repeatedly acknowledges the supremacy of the Father over himself and his own dependence upon the Father, and that the Father sent him, and that he does nothing of himself.” (3)

References:

(1) Ron Able, Wrested Scriptures (Pasadena, CA: Geddes Press), p. 194

(2) Tanakh The Holy Scriptures (Philadelphia & Jerusalem, The Jewish Publication Society, 1985) p. 88

(3) Information in an e-mail message to the author from Brian DeFord <bdeford@nova.org>, Dec. 13, 1997.

"But to us there is but one God"

1 Corinthians 8:6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, .... and one Lord Jesus Christ....

God in this passage is the Greek word theos (G2316) and speaks of deity.

The Greek word for lord is kurios (G2962) and is a title of honor and speaks of respect and reverence. It does not speak of deity. A word study on this word will support this.

This passage cannot be used to support the deity of the Messiah but it does show that there is but one God, the Father. If there is but one God, the Father, how then can Jesus be deity?

Christ as a priest cannot be God.

Heb 3:1 therefore, holy brothers, who share in the heavenly calling, fix your thoughts on Jesus the apostle and high priest whom we confess.

The office of a priest is to minister to God. Christ, then, as a priest, cannot be God.

The Doctrine of the Trinity and the Deity of Christ

Having been a Trinitarian for eighteen years, I'm aware of all the arguments for the Trinity and thus the deity of Christ and have examined them all. I find the only way the Trinity can be found in Scripture is if the idea is taken to Scripture. It can't be found from Scripture it self.

Jesus never said that he was God but spoke of the Father who sent him as God and the only God.

John 17:3 Now this is eternal life: that they may know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent.

If then Jesus said that his Father is the only true God, then Jesus can't be deity and thus the doctrine of the Trinity is false.