Friday, January 9, 2009
The Creeds and the Deity of Christ
As alluded to in the Nicene Creed, and stated in the Athanasian Creed, “in this Trinity none is afore, or after other: none is greater, or less than another.” If then this is true, that the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit are co-equal, “none is greater, or less than another,” why does Jesus say, “the Father is greater than I?” Consider:
John 14:28 Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come [again] unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I.
If Jesus is co-equal with the Father, then why did he need to be taught by his Father? Consider:
John 8:28 Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am [he], and [that] I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.
These two passages are just the beginning of problems found in scripture with the doctrine of the Trinity and the deity of Christ as defined in the Creeds. In fact, for every so called “proof” text for the Trinity or the deity of Christ, there is a simple and reasonable way of looking at them that does not require the Trinity or the deity of Christ.
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Evidently, at some time or another during the course of early Christianity, someone asked the question:
ReplyDeleteIf a human, flesh and blood man, cannot even save himself then how could Jesus save himself and us if he were only a flesh and blood man?
Being as how Jesus was born under the curse of Adamic Condemnation, he was just as condemned as any of Adam's descendants.
This has led to "divine origin", "pre-existence", the "immaculate conception" of Mary and leading to other problems - such as the assumption of Mary.
The gospel of Mark (the original and first gospel) really tells when Jesus became a Son of God - at his baptism. As his followers were, he also was "adopted".
Mark 1:11 should read "Thou art my Son; this day I have begotten thee" from Psalm 2:7 (see marginal reference). Also, Acts 13:33 and especially Heb. 1:5 testify that this is the correct understanding.
Heb 1:5 For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son?
I see no evidence in the Greek that would indicate Mark 1:11 should read "begotten."
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